UPSC Prelims 2026 Polity Questions: All 9 Explained, and What They Mean for 2027

All 9 Polity questions of Prelims 2026, with explanations

1. UPSC Prelims 2026: Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:
   1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.
   2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
   3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
   Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

   1. All three statements are correct.
   2. There is no correct statement.
   3. There are two correct statements that include statement 3.
   4. There is only one correct statement.
   Answer and explanation

   Answer: (b) There is no correct statement.. All three are false. Article 393 gives the short title 'the Constitution of India', Article 395 repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935, and Article 394 brings the remaining provisions into force on 26 January 1950.

2. UPSC Prelims 2026: 'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

   1. 'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
   2. The view of 'Y' that 'law' included custom is not correct.
   3. The views of both 'X' and 'Y' are correct.
   4. The view of only 'Y' is correct.
   Answer and explanation

   Answer: (d) The view of only 'Y' is correct.. Article 13(3)(a) defines 'law' to include any ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, and custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law. Y is right. X was right about ordinances and rules but wrong to reject custom, so X's overall view is not correct.

3. UPSC Prelims 2026: Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:
   1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
   2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
   3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
   Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

   1. All the three statements are correct.
   2. There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
   3. There is only one correct statement.
   4. There is no correct statement.
   Answer and explanation

   Answer: (c) There is only one correct statement.. Statements 1 and 2 are reversed: starred questions get oral answers and allow supplementaries; unstarred questions get written answers. Statement 3 is correct, since supplementaries cannot follow a written answer.

4. UPSC Prelims 2026: Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:
   1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
   2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
   3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to become a member of this Committee.
   4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
   Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

   1. There are four correct statements.
   2. There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
   3. There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
   4. There is no correct statement.
   Answer and explanation

   Answer: (d) There is no correct statement.. All four are wrong. The Committee has 30 members: 20 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. The Speaker appoints the Chairperson. No Minister can be a member. The term is not more than one year.

5. UPSC Prelims 2026: Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?
   1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
   2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
   3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories. Select the answer using the code given below:

   1. 1 and 2
   2. 2 only
   3. 1 and 3
   4. 2 and 3
   Answer and explanation

   Answer: (b) 2 only. The Revamped RGSA runs from 1 April 2022 to 31 March 2026. Its aim is to build PRI governance capacity to localise the SDGs. Funding is 60:40 for States (90:10 for north-eastern and hill States and J&K) and 100% only for Union Territories.

6. UPSC Prelims 2026: Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:
   1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
   2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
   3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
   Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

   1. There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
   2. There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
   3. There is only one correct statement.
   4. All three statements are correct.
   Answer and explanation

   Answer: (a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.. Statement 1 is wrong: these four States are covered by the Sixth Schedule. Statement 2 is right: Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act exempts ST members living in specified north-eastern areas. Statement 3 is right: Article 243D(3) reserves at least one-third of SC/ST seats for SC/ST women. So two correct statements including statement 2.

7. UPSC Prelims 2026: Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?
   1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
   2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
   3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs). Select the answer using the code given below:

   1. 1 and 2
   2. 2 only
   3. 1 and 3
   4. 1 only
   Answer and explanation

   Answer: (b) 2 only. The RPwD Act was passed in 2016 (not 2018). Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (2015) covers built environment, transport and ICT. NDFDC works under the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

8. UPSC Prelims 2026: Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?
   1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
   2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
   3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically. Select the answer using the code given below:

   1. 1, 2 and 3
   2. 2 and 3 only
   3. 1 only
   4. 2 only
   Answer and explanation

   Answer: (c) 1 only. Section 173(1) BNSS lets information be given at any police station 'irrespective of the area where the offence is committed', which is the Zero FIR. The station that receives it registers it and transfers it to the station with jurisdiction; the preliminary enquiry under Section 173(3) is for the investigating station. Information may be given orally or electronically, so electronic filing is an option, not a duty.

9. UPSC Prelims 2026: With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details: In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

   1. 1
   2. 2
   3. 3
   4. None
   Answer and explanation

   Answer: (a) 1. Only row 3 is right: the CBI's mission is to preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy, and it works under the Department of Personnel and Training. CEIB is under the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue), and SFIO is under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

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