Parliament

The story behind it

The seat freeze was meant to stop States that controlled population growth from losing seats to States that did not. That bargain has run into the 2026 deadline. Women’s reservation (the 106th Amendment, 2023) was tied to the next delimitation. In April 2026 an attempt to raise the Lok Sabha’s size and advance delimitation, the 131st Amendment Bill, failed to get the two-thirds majority in the Lok Sabha. The official text records Article 334A’s insertion as “date yet to be notified”.

How UPSC asks it

1. UPSC 2024 How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
   1. One
   2. Two
   3. Three
   4. Four
   Show answer

   (d) Four. Delimitation Commissions were set up under Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002, i.e., four commissions (working in 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002).
2. UPSC 2020 Consider the following statements:
   1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
   2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 only
   3. Both 1 and 2
   4. Neither 1 nor 2
   Show answer

   (d) Neither 1 nor 2. 1 is wrong: Article 164(4) lets a non-member be minister for six months, but the person must be qualified to be an MLA (e.g., 25 years old), which is more than being eligible to vote. 2 is wrong: disqualification lasts till six years after release, not permanently.
3. UPSC 2019 Consider the following statements:
   1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.
   2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
   3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   1. 1 and 2 only
   2. 3 only
   3. 2 and 3 only
   4. 1, 2 and 3
   Show answer

   (a) 1 and 2 only. The 1959 Act lists exempted posts and has been amended several times. ‘Office of profit’ is not defined in the Constitution; courts have developed tests for it.
4. UPSC 2017 For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by:
   1. anyone residing in India.
   2. a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
   3. any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
   4. any citizen of India.
   Show answer

   (c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency. Under the RPA, a Lok Sabha candidate must be an elector in any parliamentary constituency in India (plus other qualifications). Residence in the same constituency is not needed.
5. UPSC 2017 Consider the following statements:
   1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
   2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 only
   3. Both 1 and 2
   4. Neither 1 nor 2
   Show answer

   (d) Neither 1 nor 2. First-past-the-post needs only more votes than any rival, not 50%. Giving the Deputy Speaker’s post to the Opposition is a convention, not a constitutional rule.
6. UPSC 2012 Consider the following statements:
   1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
   2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
   3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 and 3
   3. 1 and 3
   4. None
   Show answer

   (d) None. Delhi, Puducherry (and now J&K) have Rajya Sabha seats. Election petitions go to High Courts. Parliament includes the President (Article 79). So none is correct.
7. UPSC 2012 With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
   1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
   2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 only
   3. Both 1 and 2
   4. Neither 1 nor 2
   Show answer

   (c) Both 1 and 2. Its orders have the force of law, cannot be questioned in court, and the House cannot modify them when they are laid before it.
8. UPSC 2003 Which one of the following statements is correct?
   1. Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members.
   2. There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha.
   3. There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister.
   4. A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential election.
   Show answer

   (c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister. A nominated member can be a minister. The Anglo-Indian seats were in the Lok Sabha (now ended), and nominated members vote only in the Vice-President’s election.
9. UPSC 2002 In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of Security deposited for general category candidates and SC/ST category candidates respectively is:
   1. ₹5,000 and ₹2,500
   2. ₹10,000 and ₹2,500
   3. ₹10,000 and ₹5,000
   4. ₹15,000 and ₹7,500
   Show answer

   (c) ₹10,000 and ₹5,000. In 2002 it was ₹10,000 and ₹5,000. Note: since 2009 it is ₹25,000 and ₹12,500.
10. UPSC 2002 The term of the Lok Sabha:
    1. cannot be extended under any circumstances
    2. can be extended by six months at a time
    3. can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
    4. can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
    Show answer

    (c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency. Article 83(2): one year at a time during a National Emergency.
11. UPSC 1997 Which of the following is/are stated in the Constitution of India?
    1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament.
    2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.
    1. Neither 1 nor 2
    2. Both 1 and 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Only 2
    Show answer

    (b) Both 1 and 2. Article 59(1) says the President shall not be a member of either House; Article 79 says Parliament consists of the President and two Houses.

The story behind it

The office predates the Constitution. Vithalbhai Patel became the first elected Indian President of the Central Legislative Assembly in 1925. G.V. Mavalankar, the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha (UPSC 2007), set many conventions, including the Speaker’s political neutrality. The Speaker’s powers have grown well beyond presiding: certifying Money Bills (Article 110(3)), deciding defection cases (Tenth Schedule) and presiding over joint sittings (Article 118(4)). That growth is why the impartiality of the office is debated so often.

How UPSC asks it

1. UPSC 2025 Consider the following statements: I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately. III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the statements given above are correct?
   1. I and II only
   2. II and III only
   3. I and III only
   4. I, II and III
   Show answer

   (c) I and III only. I and III are from Article 94. II is wrong: the Constitution does not require the Speaker to leave the party.
2. UPSC 2024 With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration:
   1. He/she shall not preside.
   2. He/she shall not have the right to speak.
   3. He/she shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   1. 1 only
   2. 1 and 2 only
   3. 2 and 3 only
   4. 1, 2 and 3
   Show answer

   (a) 1 only. Article 96: the Speaker cannot preside, but can speak and take part and can vote in the first instance (not on a tie).
3. UPSC 2022 With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
   1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
   2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
   3. The Deputy Speaker has the same powers as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
   4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   1. 1 and 3 only
   2. 1, 2 and 3
   3. 3 and 4 only
   4. 2 and 4 only
   Show answer

   (a) 1 and 3 only. Rule 8 lets the Speaker fix the date; when presiding the Deputy Speaker has the Speaker’s powers. There is no mandatory party rule, and the Speaker does not move the motion.
4. UPSC 2012 Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
   1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
   2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
   3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   1. 1 and 2 only
   2. 3 only
   3. 1, 2 and 3
   4. None
   Show answer

   (b) 3 only. The Speaker is elected by the House from among its members and does not serve at the President’s pleasure. Only 3 is correct.
5. UPSC 2007 Who was the Speaker of the First Lok Sabha?
   1. Hukum Singh
   2. G.V. Mavalankar
   3. K. M. Munshi
   4. U.N. Dhebar
   Show answer

   (b) G.V. Mavalankar. G.V. Mavalankar (1952–56) was the first Speaker; Hukum Singh was a later Speaker (1962–67).

The story behind it

Only three Bills have ever gone to a joint sitting: the Dowry Prohibition Bill (1961), the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill (1978), and the Prevention of Terrorism Bill (2002). Because the Lok Sabha is more than twice the Rajya Sabha’s size, the joint sitting favours the Lok Sabha’s view. That is the main reason governments rarely need it.

How UPSC asks it

1. UPSC 2024 With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
   1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
   2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
   3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   1. 1 only
   2. 1 and 2
   3. 2 and 3
   4. 3 only
   Show answer

   (b) 1 and 2. Statements 1 and 2 are correct. A bill for which a joint sitting has been notified does not lapse.
2. UPSC 2024 With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
   1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
   2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
   3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India, who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   1. 1 only
   2. 1 and 2
   3. 2 and 3
   4. 3 only
   Show answer

   (c) 2 and 3. The President prorogues on ministerial advice, so 1 is wrong. Prorogation can happen even while the House is sitting, and dissolution is normally on advice.
3. UPSC 2020 Consider the following statements:
   1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.
   2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
   3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 only
   3. 1 and 3 only
   4. 2 and 3 only
   Show answer

   (c) 1 and 3 only. Article 85 lets the President summon at any time and place; the only rule is a maximum six-month gap. Three sessions is a convention, not a constitutional provision.
4. UPSC 2017 With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
   1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
   2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 only
   3. Both 1 and 2
   4. Neither 1 nor 2
   Show answer

   (d) Neither 1 nor 2. A private member is any MP who is not a minister. Fourteen private members’ bills have become law; the last was in 1970.
5. UPSC 2016 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
   1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
   2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 only
   3. Both 1 and 2
   4. Neither 1 nor 2
   Show answer

   (b) 2 only. Prorogation does not end pending bills. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, not passed by the Lok Sabha, survives dissolution.
6. UPSC 2015 When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by
   1. a simple majority of members present and voting
   2. three-fourths majority of members present and voting
   3. two-thirds majority of the Houses
   4. absolute majority of the Houses
   Show answer

   (a) a simple majority of members present and voting. Article 108(4): a majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting.
7. UPSC 2012 A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
   1. Ordinary Legislation
   2. Money Bill
   3. Constitution Amendment Bill
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 and 3 only
   3. 1 and 3 only
   4. 1, 2 and 3
   Show answer

   (a) 1 only. There is no joint sitting for Money Bills (Lok Sabha prevails) or amendment bills (each House must pass separately).
8. UPSC 2004 Consider the following statements:
   1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.
   2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.
   3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until immediately before the first meeting of the House.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   1. 1 and 2
   2. 2 and 3
   3. 1 and 3
   4. 1, 2 and 3
   Show answer

   (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three are correct: sine die adjournment by the Speaker, automatic dissolution after five years, and the Speaker’s continuation under Article 94.
9. UPSC 2003 Consider the following statements:
   1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution.
   2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
   3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
   Which of these statements is correct?
   1. 1 and 2
   2. 2 and 3
   3. 1 and 3
   4. 1, 2 and 3
   Show answer

   (d) 1, 2 and 3. Article 108; first joint sitting 1961 (Dowry Prohibition Bill); second 1978 (Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill). Third: 2002, POTA.

The story behind it

Parliament’s control of money goes back to the English principle of “no taxation without representation”, and only the elected House holds it. The modern dispute is over the Speaker’s certificate. The Aadhaar Act (2016) was passed as a Money Bill, bypassing the Rajya Sabha. The Supreme Court upheld it 4:1 in 2018, with Justice Chandrachud dissenting that the certification was a fraud on the Constitution. In Rojer Mathew (2019) a five-judge bench referred the question, whether a Speaker’s Money Bill certificate can be reviewed, to a larger bench, where it remains pending.

How UPSC asks it

1. UPSC 2024 With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:
   1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
   2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 only
   3. Both 1 and 2
   4. Neither 1 nor 2
   Show answer

   (b) 2 only. The Budget is laid on behalf of the President (Article 112), not the Prime Minister. Statement 2 is Article 113(3).
2. UPSC 2024 Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
   1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
   2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
   3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
   4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
   1. 1 and 2 only
   2. 2 and 3 only
   3. 1, 2 and 3
   4. 1, 3 and 4
   Show answer

   (c) 1, 2 and 3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Lok Sabha may accept or reject the Rajya Sabha’s recommendations.
3. UPSC 2023 With reference to the Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
   1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
   2. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill; it can only make recommendations.
   3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for the Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill.
   How many of the above statements are correct?
   1. Only one
   2. Only two
   3. All three
   4. None
   Show answer

   (b) Only two. 1 and 2 are correct. For a Finance Bill a joint sitting is possible, not necessary.
4. UPSC 2020 Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include 'The Macro Economic Framework Statement'. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by:
   1. Long standing parliamentary convention
   2. Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India
   3. Article 113 of the Constitution of India
   4. Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
   Show answer

   (d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003. The FRBM Act, 2003 requires three statements with the Budget, including the Macro-Economic Framework Statement.
5. UPSC 2018 Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
   1. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
   2. A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
   3. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.
   4. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
   Show answer

   (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India. Article 110 covers appropriation from the Consolidated Fund, not the Contingency Fund.
6. UPSC 2015 Consider the following statements:
   1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
   2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
   3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
   1. 1 only
   2. 1 and 2 only
   3. 2 and 3 only
   4. 1, 2 and 3
   Show answer

   (b) 1 and 2 only. The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Budget; it only cannot vote on demands or reject/amend Money Bills.
7. UPSC 2013 What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
   1. The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
   2. The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
   3. The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
   4. The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
   Show answer

   (a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha’s ‘amendments’ are only recommendations; the Lok Sabha may accept or reject them.
8. UPSC 2012 Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
   1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament.
   2. Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill.
   3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account.
   4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office.
   5. Introducing the Finance Bill in the Parliament.
   1. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
   2. 1, 2 and 4 only
   3. 3, 4 and 5 only
   4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
   Show answer

   (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only. India has no Parliamentary Budget Office, so 4 is wrong. The rest are standard financial controls.
9. UPSC 2011 When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha:
   1. The Budget is modified and presented again
   2. The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
   3. The Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
   4. The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
   Show answer

   (d) The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers. Defeat of the Budget means loss of the Lok Sabha’s confidence; the whole Council of Ministers resigns.
10. UPSC 2011 What is the difference between 'vote-on-account' and 'interim budget'?
    1. The provision of a 'vote-on-account' is used by a regular Government, while an 'interim budget' is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
    2. A 'vote-on-account' only deals with the expenditure in the Government's budget, while an 'interim budget' includes both expenditure and receipts.
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    (b) 2 only. Both tools can be used by either kind of government. A vote-on-account covers only expenditure; an interim budget covers receipts too.
11. UPSC 2011 The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from:
    1. The President of India
    2. The Parliament of India
    3. The Prime Minister of India
    4. The Union Finance Minister
    Show answer

    (b) The Parliament of India. Article 114(3): no money can be withdrawn except under appropriation made by law, i.e., by Parliament.
12. UPSC 2011 All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the:
    1. Contingency Fund of India
    2. Public Account
    3. Consolidated Fund of India
    4. Deposits and Advances Fund
    Show answer

    (c) Consolidated Fund of India. Article 266(1): all revenues, loans raised and repayments received go to the Consolidated Fund.
13. UPSC 2004 With reference to Indian public finance, consider the following statements:
    1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of the Parliament.
    2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
    3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    (b) 2 and 3. Public Account payments are made by executive action without a vote, so 1 is wrong. 2 and 3 are correct (the Railway Budget is now merged with the General Budget since 2017).
14. UPSC 2000 Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?
    1. A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
    2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
    3. The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days.
    4. The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration.
    Show answer

    (a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

The story behind it

The first no-confidence motion was moved by J.B. Kripalani against Nehru’s government in 1963, after the war with China. Only one government has lost a no-confidence or confidence vote by a single vote: Vajpayee’s in April 1999. Zero Hour is an Indian innovation of the early 1960s, named for its start at 12 noon, and is not in the rules at all. The Rajya Sabha has no power to remove a government; it can question and debate, but a no-confidence motion lies only in the Lok Sabha.

How UPSC asks it

1. UPSC 2026 Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:
   1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
   2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
   3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
   Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
   1. All the three statements are correct.
   2. There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
   3. There is only one correct statement.
   4. There is no correct statement.
   Show answer

   (c) There is only one correct statement. Statements 1 and 2 are reversed: starred questions get oral answers and allow supplementaries; unstarred questions get written answers. Statement 3 is correct, since supplementaries cannot follow a written answer.
2. UPSC 2020 With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?
   1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
   2. A specified portion of each MP fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
   3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
   4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.
   1. 1 and 2 only
   2. 3 and 4 only
   3. 1, 2 and 3 only
   4. 1, 2 and 4 only
   Show answer

   (d) 1, 2 and 4 only. Funds are for durable assets; 15% for SC and 7.5% for ST areas; district authorities inspect at least 10% of works. Funds are non-lapsable, so 3 is wrong.
3. UPSC 2018 Consider the following statements:
   1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
   2. In the Lok Sabha, a 'Leader of the Opposition' was recognised for the first time in 1969.
   3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
   1. 1 and 3 only
   2. 2 only
   3. 2 and 3 only
   4. 1, 2 and 3
   Show answer

   (b) 2 only. The largest opposition party in 1952 was the CPI (Swatantra was founded in 1959). The 10% (55 seats) practice is a convention; there is no 75-member rule.
4. UPSC 2017 The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
   1. Adjournment motion
   2. Question hour
   3. Supplementary questions
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 and 3 only
   3. 1 and 3 only
   4. 1, 2 and 3
   Show answer

   (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three are devices of parliamentary control over the executive.
5. UPSC 2014 Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
   1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
   2. A motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 only
   3. Both 1 and 2
   4. Neither 1 nor 2
   Show answer

   (c) Both 1 and 2. Article 75 speaks of collective responsibility; the motion itself is in the Lok Sabha’s rules (Rule 198) and only the Lok Sabha can pass it.
6. UPSC 2012 In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is
   1. to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance.
   2. to let opposition members collect information from the ministers.
   3. to allow a reduction of specific amounts in demand for grants.
   4. to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members.
   Show answer

   (a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance. It interrupts normal business to discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance. (c) describes a cut motion.
7. UPSC 2004 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
   1. In the Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based
   2. In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules
   3. A motion of no-confidence once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted
   4. Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence
   Show answer

   (a) In the Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based. A no-confidence motion need not state any grounds. A censure motion must state reasons.
8. UPSC 2001 In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?
   1. Through Parliamentary Committees
   2. Through Consultative Committees in various ministries
   3. By making the administrators send periodic reports
   4. By compelling the executive to issue writs
   Show answer

   (a) Through Parliamentary Committees. Financial and standing committees give Parliament continuous, detailed oversight of administration.
9. UPSC 2000 The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as:
   1. decorum
   2. crossing the floor
   3. interpellation
   4. yielding the floor
   Show answer

   (d) yielding the floor. Yielding the floor: giving up one’s turn to another speaker. Crossing the floor means changing sides.

The story behind it

Committees do most of Parliament’s detailed work, and almost none are in the Constitution. They come from the Rules of Procedure under Article 118.

• Public Accounts Committee: the oldest financial committee, set up in 1921 under the Montagu-Chelmsford reforms. Since 1967 its chairman has been from the opposition by convention, because it examines the government’s spending as audited by the CAG.
• Estimates Committee (1950): Lok Sabha members only, and the largest committee, with 30 members (UPSC 2014).
• Committee on Public Undertakings (1964), on the Krishna Menon Committee’s advice.
• Departmentally Related Standing Committees (1993): 24 committees, each shadowing a group of ministries. They examine Bills and demands for grants, extending scrutiny to areas the House has no time for. Independent regulators come under these committees’ review (UPSC 2019).

How UPSC asks it

1. UPSC 2026 Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:
   1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
   2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
   3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to become a member of this Committee.
   4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
   Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
   1. There are four correct statements.
   2. There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
   3. There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
   4. There is no correct statement.
   Show answer

   (d) There is no correct statement. All four are wrong. The Committee has 30 members: 20 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. The Speaker appoints the Chairperson. No Minister can be a member. The term is not more than one year.
2. UPSC 2024 Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
   1. Initially, it was an ad-hoc Committee.
   2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to the unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
   3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
   1. 1 and 2 only
   2. 2 and 3 only
   3. 1 and 3 only
   4. 1, 2 and 3
   Show answer

   (c) 1 and 3 only. It began as an ad hoc committee in 2000 and became permanent in 2015. Any person can complain through an MP, so 2 is wrong. It does not take up sub-judice matters.
3. UPSC 2019 In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
   1. Ad Hoc Committee set up by the Parliament
   2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committee
   3. Finance Commission
   4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
   5. NITI Aayog
   1. 1 and 2
   2. 1, 3 and 4
   3. 3, 4 and 5
   4. 2 and 5
   Show answer

   (a) 1 and 2. Parliament reviews regulators through its committees. The Finance Commission, FSLRC and NITI Aayog have no such role.
4. UPSC 2018 With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinises and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?
   1. Committee on Government Assurances
   2. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
   3. Rules Committee
   4. Business Advisory Committee
   Show answer

   (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation checks delegated legislation.
5. UPSC 2014 Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
   1. The Committee on Public Accounts
   2. The Committee on Estimates
   3. The Committee on Public Undertakings
   4. The Committee on Petitions
   Show answer

   (b) The Committee on Estimates. The Estimates Committee has 30 members, all from the Lok Sabha.
6. UPSC 2013 Consider the following statements. The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts:
   1. Consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha.
   2. Scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of the Government.
   3. Examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 and 3 only
   3. 3 only
   4. 1, 2 and 3
   Show answer

   (b) 2 and 3 only. PAC has 22 members (15 + 7). It examines appropriation and finance accounts and CAG reports.
7. UPSC 2007 Consider the following statements:
   1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
   2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and few eminent persons of industry and trade.
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 only
   3. Both 1 and 2
   4. Neither 1 nor 2
   Show answer

   (a) 1 only. The Speaker appoints the chairman. There are no outside members.
8. UPSC 2003 Consider the following statements:
   1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from the Lok Sabha.
   2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.
   3. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.
   1. 1 and 2
   2. 2 and 3
   3. 1 and 3
   4. 1, 2 and 3
   Show answer

   (d) 1, 2 and 3. All three are correct.

The story behind it

“Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram” became the phrase for defection after Gaya Lal, a Haryana MLA, switched parties repeatedly within days in 1967. The 52nd Amendment (1985) brought in the Tenth Schedule. In Kihoto Hollohan (1992), the Supreme Court upheld the Speaker’s role but made decisions open to judicial review. In Keisham Meghachandra (2020) it said disqualification petitions should ordinarily be decided within three months. On privileges, Sita Soren (2024): seven judges overruled the 1998 P.V. Narasimha Rao judgment and held that an MP or MLA who takes a bribe to vote or speak gets no immunity under Article 105 or 194.

How UPSC asks it

1. UPSC 2025 Consider the following statements: I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final. II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.
   1. I only
   2. II only
   3. Both I and II
   4. Neither I nor II
   Show answer

   (d) Neither I nor II. Defection questions are decided by the Speaker. The 52nd Amendment (Tenth Schedule) brought ‘political party’ into the Constitution.
2. UPSC 2024 Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':
   1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
   2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
   3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
   1. 1, 2 and 3
   2. 1 and 2 only
   3. 2 and 3 only
   4. 1 and 3 only
   Show answer

   (c) 2 and 3 only. Reservation starts only after the next census and delimitation, so not from the 18th Lok Sabha. It lasts 15 years and includes SC/ST women within their quotas.
3. UPSC 2022 Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
   1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
   2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
   3. To impeach the President of India
   1. 1 and 2
   2. 2 only
   3. 1 and 3
   4. 3 only
   Show answer

   (b) 2 only. Both Houses approve Emergency and both take part in impeachment. Only the Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion.
4. UPSC 2022 With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
   1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
   2. The law does not provide any timeframe within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 only
   3. Both 1 and 2
   4. Neither 1 nor 2
   Show answer

   (b) 2 only. A nominated member may join a party within six months; after that he is disqualified if he joins. There is no time limit for the presiding officer.
5. UPSC 2020 Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
   1. the matter of creating new All India Services
   2. amending the Constitution
   3. the removal of the government
   4. making cut motions
   Show answer

   (b) amending the Constitution. Amendment bills need each House’s special majority. Creating new All-India Services is a special Rajya Sabha power; removal of government and cut motions belong to the Lok Sabha.
6. UPSC 2012 Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
   1. To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State.
   2. To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services.
   3. To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement.
   4. To determine the functions of the Election Commission and determine the number of Election Commissioners.
   Show answer

   (b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services. Articles 249 and 312.
7. UPSC 2006 Consider the following statements:
   1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.
   2. Resolutions approving the proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.
   1. 1 only
   2. 2 only
   3. Both 1 and 2
   4. Neither 1 nor 2
   Show answer

   (a) 1 only. Article 249 is a Rajya Sabha power. Emergency proclamations are approved by both Houses.
8. UPSC 1997 Assertion (A): Reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature does not require any Constitutional amendment. Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three percent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment.
   1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
   2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
   3. A is true but R is false
   4. A is false but R is true
   Show answer

   (d) A is false but R is true. Reserving seats needs an amendment (done by the 106th Amendment, 2023). Parties can field women voluntarily without any amendment.